Referring back to the GM’s argument that we can’t get a majority to vote on anything. (The fact that we have so many absentee owners much of the time probably contributes to this.) I’m not a lawyer, but doesn’t the following quote of Section 7.9, which Bob Burch noted, indicate that the board can vote on “Change of Services and Use of Common Area” ? If so, doesn’t it also indicate that, if the board would vote to change, only 10% objecting to such a board decision would necessitate a vote by all homeowners.
“Section 7.9 further clarifies that if the Board resolution states that the change will not have an adverse effect on the Association and the Owners, the Board may give notice of the change to all Owners. “The notice shall give the Owners a right to object within 30 days of the notice. If less than 10% of the members (715 members) submit written objections, the change shall be deemed approved . . . “. If more than 10% of the Owners object to the change, then the resolution would need to be submitted to the Owners for a vote.”